Try http://www.unibas.ch/klaphil/idg-ie.html for some background information on the terminology (auf Deutsch allerdings...) I figure that EJ probably used indogermanic because it was the term that was current during the most formative years of his intellectual development.=20 On a more anecdotal level - when I was at University, Indo-European was the term most used in English language linguistics to describe Latin-Germanic-Celtic-Persian/Sanskrit family of languages. Indo-Germanic did seem to be used much more in German language linguistics (not that I ever did very much linguistics, I hasten to add ;-). Gruss, John -----Original Message----- From: martin krueger [mailto:thingyding@inwind.it] Sent: 24 July 2001 14:37 To: juenger-list@juenger.org Subject: Re: [Juenger-list] EJ, DIE SCHERE #72: Note 1: Fantasy and Utopia EJ, DIE SCHERE #72: Note 1 The latter are in their > turn tersely and graphically corroborated by famous words of Heraclitus and > Napoleon. David and Goliath! Dear friends of the list! Is there someone who can explain me why J continued to call the indoeuropean languages indogermanic languages? Regards, m _______________________________________________ Juenger-list mailing list Juenger-list@juenger.org http://www.pairlist.net/mailman/listinfo/juenger-list
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